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Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question. Choose the correct answer form the alternative based only the passage given 
Megasthenese declared that there were no slaves in India. He as certainly wrong, but Indian slavery was Milder than the form he was used to see in the West and slaves were much less numerous than in the Civilizations of the West; hence he may not have recognized the dasa as a slave. The Arthashastra, in many Many ways more liberal than the religious books,lays down regulations appreciably milder than those we Have outlined. The sale of children into slavery is explicitly forbidden except in dire exergency. Slaves Are entitled to own and inherit property, and to earn money freely in their spare time. Slaves of the upper Classes cannot be forced to perform defiling duties. The chastity of slave-girls protected, the master who Rapes a slave girls must set her free and pay her compensation, and if she has a child by her master, ever with her own consent, both mother and child become free. The humane regulation of the Arthashastra, probably unique in the records of any ancient civilization, are perhaps survivals of Mauryan laws and it is, therefore, no surprising that Megasthenese declared that there was no slavery in India.

Why did Megasthenese declare that there was no slavery in India?

[UPPSC 2015 P2 CSAT]
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